The “CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Paper Analysis” is an invaluable resource for students studying for the Common Law Admission Test (CLAT). Among the various sections of the CLAT, Legal Reasoning stands out as both challenging and crucial. This section tests your ability to apply legal principles to factual scenarios, reflecting the practical aspects of legal education and the profession.
This analysis digs into the legal reasoning areas of the CLAT previous year exam. It seeks to provide insights about the types of questions and the most frequently addressed topic areas. You can obtain a better understanding of the legal reasoning abilities necessary by examining last year papers, such as argument analysis, fact identification, and application of legal concepts. This analysis is useful for good preparation since it will allow you to discover significant themes, detect patterns, and devise strategies for dealing with similar questions in the next CLAT exam.
If you are searching for the CLAT legal reasoning last year question papers analysis, you cannot afford to miss out on this opportunity. Read the post till the end, to get an insight about the CLAT legal reasoning previous year question paper analysis.
CLAT Legal Reasoning – Pattern and Importance
Pattern
Apart from the Current affairs and general knowledge sections, the legal reasoning section of the CLAT has the maximum weight. About 25% of the paper covers legal reasoning questions, as about 28-32 questions will be asked from 120 questions. Similar to the other sections of the question paper, passage based questions will be asked, and each passage will be up to 450 words.
| Subject | Number of Questions likely to be Asked | Approximate Weightage (in %) |
| Legal Reasoning | 28-32 questions | 25% of the paper (approx.) |
Importance
The paragraphs will revolve around actual occurrences or scenarios including legal or public policy problems. Remember that you will not need any prior understanding of the law to answer the questions in this section.
A comprehensive understanding of present legal and moral concerns will help you better apply generic concepts or propositions to the supplied factual scenarios. Each passage will include a series of questions designed to test your ability to:
(i) identify and infer the concepts and rules outlined in the passage;
(ii) apply these concepts and rules to a variety of factual circumstances; and
(iii) comprehend how changes to the principles or rules may affect them and how they can be applied in different factual situations
Types of Question
Some common types of questions asked in the section on legal knowledge for CLAT are:
- In Principle-Fact Questions, you must determine the principle’s applicability to the facts and conclude.
- In Principle-Argument Questions, you must examine the supplied arguments and determine which are logically sound in light of the provided principle.
- In Legal Problem-Solving Questions, you will be asked to provide a solution, make a legal judgment, or predict the outcome of a case based on the information given in the passage.
Also Read: CLAT Legal Reasoning Questions & Techniques for 2024
CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Paper Analysis – General Analysis
The consortium of NLU has changed the pattern of asking questions in the CLAT examination. In respect of the legal reasoning section, before the year 2020, principle – facts based questions were asked. But since 2020, the questions asked are based on the passages given. You are required to apply the principle given in the passage, and no outside knowledge is required to answer the legal reasoning questions.
CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Question Paper Analysis – 2020
In the year 2020, the passages were based on both static law and current legal knowledge. In total, 8 passages were asked in 2020.
Subject Covered
The passages asked were from the following subjects:
- Contract Law – One (1) passage was asked from the Indian Contract Act.
- Indian Penal Code – Three (3) passages were based on the IPC
- Environmental Law – One (1) passage was based on the environmental law
- Law of Tort – One (1) passage was based on Torts
- Constitutional Law – Two (2) passages were based on the Constitution of India
Topics Asked
From the above mentioned subjects, the topics asked were:
- COVID – Force Majeure
- Obscenity
- Principle – Polluter Pays, Strict liability and Absolute Liability
- Principles of Natural Justice
- Mob Lynching
- Freedom of Speech – Journalist
- Common Intention
- Ex post facto laws
Sample Passage
The issue of Obscenity has vexed the Courts in India and abroad for a long time now. The intriguing question has always been the same, i.e., what should be the standards to qualify something as obscene in the eyes of law? In the United Kingdom, way back in 1868, the Court laid down the Hicklin test in Regina v. Hicklin (1868 L.R. 2 Q.B. 360), and held that: “The test of Obscenity is whether the tendency of the matter charged as Obscenity is to deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences and into whose hands a publication of this sort may fall.”Hicklin test postulated that a publication has to be judged for obscenity based on isolated passages of a work considered out of context and judged by their apparent influence on most susceptible readers, such as children or weak-minded adults. However, this test was later rejected by most of the jurisdictions. There were many judgments where it was stipulated by the Indian Courts that, Obscenity has to be judged in the context of contemporary social mores, current socio-moral attitude of the community and the prevalent norms of acceptability/ susceptibility of the community, in relation to matters in issue. [For example, in Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra AIR 1965 SC 881; ChandrakantKalyandasKakodar v. State of Maharashtra 1969 (2) SCC 687 etc.] These judgements indicated that the concept of Obscenity would change with the passage of time and what might have been “obscene” at one point of time would not be considered as obscene at a later period. This came to be known as “Community Standards Test”. In Bobby Art International &Ors. v. Om Pal Singh Hoon (1996) 4 SCC 1, the Court, upholding the Community standards test held that, complete message and context of the objectionable scene/firm/picture etc., needs to be examined in order to find out whether the alleged material is obscene or not.
1. A, daily local newspaper called ‘Ramanand Bazar Patrika‘ having wide circulation in Anandnagar published, on 1stJuly, 2019, an article with a picture of Boris Becker, a world renowned Tennis player, posing nude with his dark-skinned fiancée by name Barbara Feltus, a film actress, which was photographed by none other than her father. The article states that, in an interview, both Boris Becker and Barbara Feltus spoke freely about their engagement, their lives and future plans and the message they wanted to convey to the people at large, for posing to such a photograph. Article picturises Boris Becker as a strident protester of the pernicious practice of “Apartheid”. Further, it was stated that the purpose of the photograph was also to signify that love champions over hatred. Will the alleged picture classify as an Obscene Material in India?
(a) No, according to the Hicklin Test, it will not classify as Obscene.
(b) Yes, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will classify as Obscene.
(c) No, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will not classify as Obscene.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
2. The difference between Hicklin Test and Community Standards Test is:
(a) The former focuses on the susceptibility of the minds of individuals to get corrupted while the later hinges upon the context, intended meaning and contemporaneous socio-cultural environment of the society.
(b) As per Hicklin Test, a nude picture of a women per se can be obscene while as per the later, the picture should be suggestive of deprave mind and designed to excite sexual passion in persons who are likely to see it.
(c) The former considers Obscenity as a changing concept with changing times while the later does not.
(d) All of the above.
3. The issue of ‘Obscenity’ is fundamentally related with which of the following?
(a) Freedom of Religion of an individual.
(b)Freedom of Speech and Expression of an individual.
(c) Right to Privacy of an individual.
(d) All of the above.
4. Consider the following situations. Choose the correct option as per the Hicklin‘s Test.
1. A Movie scene where there are rows of Jewish naked men and women, shown frontally, being led into the Gas Chambers of Nazi Concentration Camp. Not only they are about to die but they are stripped off their basic dignity in the last moments of their life.
2. The controversial movie scene of Phoolan Devi, the Bandit queen where she is paraded naked and made to draw water from the well within the circle of a hundred men.
(a) 1 is Obscene but 2 is not. (b) 2 is Obscene but 1 is not.
(c) Both 1 and 2 are Obscene. (d) Neither 1 and 2 are Obscene.
5. An activist, while being semi-nude, allowed her body to be used as a canvas to paint on by her two minor children who were properly clothed. She uploaded this video of hers on an online platform with a message that she intended to normalise the female form for her children and not allow distorted ideas about sexuality to pervade their mind. An advocate who sees the video, registers a case of Obscenity against her. Is it a case of Obscenity as per the Community Standards Test?
(a) This is a pure case of Obscenity and she is spreading it.
(b) This is a pure case of Obscenity as well as Child Pornography as her children were exposed to her nudity.
(c) This is not a case of Obscenity because as per the Community Standards Test the video must not be seen in isolation but in the contextual set up of the message that the activist has put on normalisation of a female‘s sexuality.
(d) This is a case of Obscenity as per the Community Standards Test as the video was blatantly obscene.
Also Read: CLAT 2024 Important Judgements: Supreme Court and High Courts
CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Question Paper Analysis – 2021
In the year 2021, the passages were also based on both static law and current legal knowledge. In total, 8 passages were asked in 2021.
Subject Covered
The passages asked were from the following subjects:
- Law of Tort – One (1) passage was based on Torts
- Contract Law – Three (3) passages were asked from the Indian Contract Act.
- Civil Procedure Code – One (1) passage was asked from the CPC
- Indian Penal Code – One (1) passage was based on the IPC
- Family Law – One (1) passage was based on the Hindu Marraige Act
- Current Legal Knowledge – One (1) passage was asked from the current legal knowledge
Topics Asked
From the above mentioned subjects, the topics asked were:
- Volunti non fit injuria
- Fraud and Misrepresentation
- Contract – Communication
- Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
- Res judicata
- Compassionate Appointment
- Hindu Marriage – Solemnization and Divorce
- Consent
Sample Passage
It is essential to the creation of a contract that both parties should agree to the same thing in the same sense. Mutual consent, which should also be a free consent, is the sine qua non of a valid agreement and one of its essential elements is that a thing is understood in the same sense by a party as is understood by the other. Not only consent, but free consent is provided in Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to be necessary to the complete validity of a contract. Consent is free when it works without obstacles to impede its exercise. Where there is no consent or no real and certain object of consent, there can be no contract at all. Where there is consent, but not free consent, there is generally a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was not free. A general averment that consent was not freely obtained is not enough, and it is necessary to set up one of the vitiating elements such as fraud which includes, false assertion, active concealment, promise without intention of performing it, any other deceptive act, or any act declared as fraudulent. In order to constitute fraud, the act should have been done by the party to the contract, or by any other person with his connivance, or by his agent and with intent to deceive the other party thereto or his agent, or to induce him to enter into the contract. There is no duty upon parties to speak about facts likely to affect the other party’s consent to the contract and mere silence does not amount to fraud, unless the circumstances of the case show that there is duty to speak, or silence is, in itself equivalent to speech. On the other hand, misrepresentation falls into three categories: (i) a statement of fact, which if false, would be misrepresentation if the maker believes it to be true, but which is not justified by the information he possesses; (ii) any breach of duty which gains an advantage to the person committing it by misleading another to his prejudice, there being no intention to deceive; and (iii) causing a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement, even though done innocently.
1. Which of the following statements correctly depicts the essentials of misrepresentation?
(a) A misrepresentation is a positive statement of fact, which is made or adopted by a party to a contract and is untrue.
(b) Misrepresentation and false representation do not mean the same.
(c) If one party has induced the other to enter into a contract by misrepresenting, though innocently, any material fact especially within his own knowledge, the party misled cannot avoid the contract.
(d) A misrepresentation is a negative statement of fact, which is made or adopted by a party to a contract and is true.
2. Consider the statements given below and answer which one correctly describes a fraudulent act.
(I) The expression fraud means an intention to deceive, whether it is from any expectation of advantage to the party himself or from ill will towards the other is immaterial.
(II)A fraud is an act of deliberate deception with the design of securing something by taking an unfair advantage of another. It is a deception to gain from another’s loss.
(III)Fraud arises out of deliberate active role of representator about a fact.
(a) (I), (II) are correct.
(b) (I) correct.
(c) (I), (II), (III) are correct.
(d) (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is incorrect.
3. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fraud is an innocent wrong whereas misrepresentation is an intentional wrong.
(b) The principal difference between fraud and misrepresentation is that in the former, the person making the suggestion does not believe it to be true and, in the latter, he believes it to be true.
(c) In fraud and misrepresentation both, it is not a misstatement of fact which misleads the promisee.
(d) Fraud and misrepresentation both are innocent wrongs.
4. Mr. A sells a car to Mr. Y, his childhood friend with a knowledge that the car is defective. Before buying the car, Mr. Y says to Mr. A, “If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the car is perfect”. Mr. A says nothing. In light of the statement, decide the liability of Mr. A.
(a) A’s silence is equivalent to speech and hence a misrepresentation.
(b) A is not liable for fraud, but liable for misrepresentation.
(c) A is liable for fraud and misrepresentation both.
(d) A’s silence is equivalent to speech and hence a fraud.
5. In which of the following statements will a contract not be voidable at the option of a party?
(a) When a party takes consent by fraud.
(b) When a party takes consent by misrepresentation.
(c) A contract entered by fraud and misrepresentation is neither void nor voidable.
(d) When silence amounts to fraud, but the other party whose consent was taken had discovered the truth or had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence.
Also Read: CLAT 2024 Most Important Topics
CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Question Paper Analysis – 2022
In 2022, all the passages were based on static law. In total, 8 passages were asked in 2022.
Subject Covered
The passages asked were from the following subjects:
- Constitutional Law – Three (3) passages were asked from the Constitution of India
- Jurisprudence – Two (2) passages were asked
- Family Law – One (1) passage was asked from the Hindu Marriage Act
- Environmental Law – One (1) passage was asked
- Law of Contract – One (1) passage was asked from the Indian Contract Act.
Topics Asked
From the above mentioned subjects, the topics asked were:
- Writ
- Article 25-28 of Constitution
- Reasonable Restriction on FR
- Bigamy
- Divorce
- Monism and Dualism
- UN Commission on Environment and Development
- Mistake
Sample Passage
To maintain the secular character of the Indian polity, not only does the Constitution of India guarantee freedom of religion to individuals and groups, but it is also against the general policy of the Constitution of India that any money be paid out of the public funds for promoting or maintaining any particular religion. Accordingly, it is provided in the Constitution of India that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This does not prohibit the State from enacting a law to incur expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination, but by such law, no person can be compelled to pay any tax, the proceeds of which are to be so utilized. This, however, does not invalidate levy of a fee to provide some service. Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to a religious fair to meet the expenses of the measures taken to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims. Such fee levied by a State will be valid because the object of such contribution is not to foster or preserve religion, but to control secular administration of religious institutions.
1. Mr. A, a tax-payer of various taxes levied by the State Government, filed a writ petition for issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the State to forbear from spending any amount from the public funds of the state for renovation of water tanks belonging to a Hindu temple in the State. These tanks were used by the general public, irrespective of their religious affiliation, for bathing and drinking purposes. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The State is promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
(b) The State cannot be said to be promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
(c) The State is compelling citizens to pay tax for promotion of Hindu religion.
(d) The State is compelling citizens to pay tax for maintenance of Hindu religion.
2. Communal riots between religion ‘A’ and religion ‘B’ resulted in the destruction of places of worship of both religions in a State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship of both religions ‘A’ and ‘B’. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The State Government’s act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining particular religions.
(b) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining any particular religion.
(c) The State Government’s act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones communal violence.
(d) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
3. Communal riots between religion ‘A’ and religion ‘B’ resulted in the destruction of a place of worship of religion ‘B’ in the State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship of religion ‘B’. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The State Government’s act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
(b) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
(c) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
(d) The State Government’s act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones communal violence.
4. A State Government passed a law making it mandatory for all residents of the State to pay a hefty ‘pilgrimage tax’ so as to aid the State in organizing a popular religious pilgrimage in that State. The said pilgrimage is undertaken only by followers of religion ‘X’ and draws a large number of followers of religion ‘X’ from all over the country to the state every year. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The State Government’s act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(b) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(c) The State Government’s act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is compelling citizens to pay tax for promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(d) The State Government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is a measure to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims.
5. The object of a State Legislation is “to provide for the better administration and governance of certain Hindu religious endowments”, where ‘religious endowment’ means the property belonging to or given or endowed for the support of temples. The State Legislation vests the supervision of public temples in a statutory authority, i.e., ‘Commissioner of Hindu Religious Endowments’. For the purpose of meeting the expenses of the Commissioner and his staff, every Hindu temple in the State is required under provisions of the State Legislation, to pay an annual contribution at certain percentage of their annual income. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct regarding the annual contribution provided under the State Legislation?
(a) It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is the proper administration of religious trusts and institutions.
(b) It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is fostering of Hindu religion.
(c) It is violative of the Constitution of India because its object is fostering of Hindu religion.
(d) It is violative of the Constitution of India because its object is not inclusive of administration of religious endowments belonging to all religions.
Also Read: CLAT Previous Year Question Papers PDF (2019 to 2023)
CLAT Legal Reasoning Previous Year Question Paper Analysis – 2023
The CLAT legal reasoning last year question paper analysis is very much essential for you as it will serve as guiding lamp as what can you expect in the legal reasoning section of CLAT 2024 exam.
In 2023, maximum passages were based on current legal knowledge and three passages were based on static law.
Subject Covered
The passages asked were from the following subjects:
- Constitutional Law – Two (2) passages were asked from the Constituton of India
- Indian Penal Code – Two (2) passages were asked from the IPC
- Consumer Protection Act – One (1) passage was asked
- Electoral Bond Scheme Act – One (1) passage was asked
- Information Technology Act – One (1) passage was asked
- NALSA – One (1) passage was asked
Topics Asked
From the above mentioned subjects, the topics asked were:
- Counterfeiting currency-notes (HC Judgement)
- Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022
- Electoral Bond Scheme, 2018
- Social Media
- NALSA
- Surrogacy
- Internet Shut Down – Laws
- Consumer Protection
Sample Passage
Parliament passed the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 (the “Act”) in March 2022. The legislation enables police and central investigating agencies to collect, store and analyse the measurements of arrested persons. Until rules are notified, an Act cannot be implemented or come into force. On September 19, 2022, the Ministry of Home Affairs (the “MHA”) notified the rules (the “Rules”) under the Act.
The Act empowers a Magistrate to direct any person to give measurements to the police, which till now was reserved for convicts and those involved in heinous crimes. It also enables police personnel of the rank of Head Constable or above to take measurements of any person who resists or refuses to give measurements when ordered to do so by a Magistrate. As per the Rules, “measurements” mean finger-impressions, palm-print, footprint, photographs, iris and retina scan, physical, biological samples and their analysis, behavioural attributes including signatures, and handwriting. Though it has not been specified, analysis of biological samples could also include DNA profiling.
However, the Rules state that measurements of those detained under preventive Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure (“CrPC”) shall not be taken unless such person is at that time charged or under arrest in connection with any other offence punishable under any other law. Measurements can also be taken under the Rules if a person has been ordered to give security for his good behaviour for maintaining peace under Section 117 of the CrPC for a proceeding under that Section.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “Explained | Rules for identifying criminals”, by Vijaita Singh, The Hindu]
1. Bhargesh is arrested by the police on April 11, 2022, on suspicion of having committed a series of minor thefts. During their investigation, the police find some fingerprints at the crime scenes, and on April 12, 2022, they tell Bhargesh that he must provide his finger-impressions to them so that they can check whether they match the fingerprints from the crime scenes. When Bhargesh refuses, the police tell him that he has no choice but to provide his measurements, as the Act had been passed by Parliament the previous month. Was Bhargesh bound to provide his finger-impressions under the Act?
(a) No, since Bhargesh had only been arrested, and not convicted.
(b) Yes, since Bhargesh was under arrest.
(c) No, since the Rules had not yet been notified.
(d) Yes, since finger-impressions are included within the definition of “measurements” under the Act.
2. Bhargesh is later released by the police because they are unable to find enough evidence to make a strong case against him. On October 5, 2022, the police receive a complaint alleging that Bhargesh had beaten up his neighbour and caused the neighbour severe injuries. They ask the local Magistrate to issue an order directing Bhargesh to provide the police his blood samples, so that they can match them against some blood stains that were found on the neighbour’s clothes. The Magistrate issues the order, but Bhargesh refuses to provide the blood samples. Is Bhargesh bound to provide his blood samples to the police under the Act?
(a) Yes, since the crime that Bhargesh was accused of was very serious.
(b) Yes, since the Magistrate had passed an order directing him to do so.
(c) Yes, since Bhargesh had already been arrested in connection with another crime in the past.
(d) Yes, since the police needed the blood samples to verify Bhargesh’s involvement in the crime.
3. On October 15, 2022, the police detain Bhargesh under a preventive Section of the CrPC, since they believe that he had plans to disturb the public peace during a festival day. They then tell Bhargesh that he must provide his measurements to them for their records. Bhargesh refuses again. Is Bhargesh bound to provide his photographs to the police under the Act?
(a) No, since he was not charged or under arrest in connection with any other offence at the time.
(b) No, since that would violate Bhargesh’s right to privacy.
(c) Yes, since the police had detained Bhargesh under a preventive Section of the CrPC.
(d) Yes, since there was a high likelihood that Bhargesh would disturb the public peace on a festival day.
4. Two days later, the police obtain an order from the Magistrate directing Bhargesh to provide them his photographs. As Bhargesh continues to refuse to provide his photographs, a regular police constable forces him to stand still and takes his photographs. Bhargesh files a case in court, claiming that the constable’s actions violate the Act. Will he succeed?
(a) Yes, since Bhargesh had been detained under a preventive section of the CrPC.
(b) Yes, since only police personnel of the rank of Head Constable or above can take measurements of any person who resists or refuses to give measurements when ordered to do so by a Magistrate.
(c) No, the Magistrate had issued an order directing him to provide his photographs to the police.
(d) No, since the police constable was only performing his duty.
5. The police release Bhargesh, but to ensure that he does not disturb the public peace, they ask the Magistrate to issue an order under Section 117 of the CrPC, directing Bhargesh to provide a security of ` 1,00,000/- for his good behavior and to ensure he maintains the peace, which the Magistrate refuses. The police now tell Bhargesh he must provide them his iris and retina scans. Is Bhargesh required to do so?
(a) No, since a person against whom an order has been issued under Section 117 of the CrPC cannot be made to give their measurements to the police.
(b) Yes, since a person against whom an order has been issued under Section 117 of the CrPC can be made to give their measurements to the police.
(c) Yes, since Bhargesh had been detained under other preventive sections of the CrPC in the past.
(d) No, since the Magistrate had not issued the order.
Also Read: How to Deal With Negative Marks in CLAT? Expert Tips
Important Legal Reasoning Topics for CLAT 2024
We have made a list of important topics that we are expecting to be asked from in the upcoming CLAT 2024 exam. The important legal reasoning topics are:
- Pension for the child adopted after death of government employee is not allowed
- Provison of section 10(26AAA) of Income Tax Act strike down by Supreme Court
- Municipal Bond Information Database Launched by SEBI
- Spain became the first European nation to pass law permitting “ menstrual leave”
- Rajasthan becomes first state to pass Right to Health bill
- Basohli painting from Jammu got tag of geographical indication
- India issued the Dogri version of the Indian constitution
- Google- Android antitrust case
- IRDAI directs insurers to cover surrogacy expenses under health insurance policy
- Right to change name
- Supreme Court issued new guidelines for designation of senior advocates
- Supreme Court upholds constitutional validity of sedition law, but places a number of restrictions on its use.
- Supreme Court sets aside the death sentence of three men in the Nirbhaya case and orders that they be re-tried in a different court.
- Supreme Court upholds the constitutional validity of the Aadhaar scheme, but places a number of restrictions on its use
- Supreme Court directs the Centre to take steps to prevent mob lynchings.
- Supreme Court orders a CBI probe into the death of actor Sushant Singh Rajput
- Supreme Court sets aside the conviction of three men in the Akshardham temple attack case and orders that they be re-tried in a different court.
- Supreme Court orders the Centre to pay compensation to victims of the 1984 anti-Sikh riots.
- Supreme Court directs the Centre to take steps to address the issue of air pollution in Delhi and the National Capital Region.
- Supreme Court orders the Centre to provide free legal aid to all under-trial prisoners who are unable to afford it
- Supreme Court orders the Centre to release a white paper on the economic situation of the country.
Tips for Preparation of Legal Knowledge for CLAT
To enhance your preparation for legal knowledge for CLAT, you can follow the tips mentioned below:
- Read the passage thoroughly, and along with that, focus on the facts, legal principles, and arguments provided in the passage.
- Identify the legal issues or questions involved after reading the passage and then analyze them.
- Eliminated the incorrect options based on your analysis of the passage.
- Do not spend too much time on a single question. Manage your time wisely
- Stay calm and confident in your legal reasoning skills while answering questions.
Also Read: CLAT Logical Reasoning Previous Year Paper Analysis 2020-23
Overview
This analysis serves as a guide, illuminating trends, common themes, and the nature of legal reasoning questions over the years. It is a tool for aspirants to gauge the depth of understanding required and to hone their analytical and logical skills, which are indispensable for a successful career in law.
In summary, the CLAT Legal Reasoning previous year question paper is a vital exercise for you. It offers more than just a glimpse into the types of topics and subjects covered that have been posed; it provides a comprehensive understanding of the shifting dynamics and expectations of the legal reasoning section. This exercise empowers students with the knowledge of patterns, themes, and the complexity inherent in legal reasoning questions, thereby enabling them to approach the exam with a well-informed and strategic mindset.
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