50 CLAT Logical Reasoning Questions (With Answers)
Whether you are just beginning your CLAT preparation or looking to refine your skills, this guide will help you navigate through the complexities of CLAT logical reasoning questions, ensuring you are well-prepared for the exam.
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CLAT Logical Reasoning: Overview
The CLAT logical reasoning section is designed to test your critical thinking skills, which are fundamental to practicing law.
It assesses how well you can:
- Interpret and draw conclusions from arguments.
- Identify strengths and weaknesses in a series of statements.
- Apply logic to complex scenarios typical of legal reasoning.
- Understand the structure of relationships and deduce new information from them.
| Aspects | Details |
| Type Of Questions | Objective-type (MCQs) |
| No. of Questions | 22-26 |
| Total Marks | 22-26 |
| Weightage | Around 20% |
| Correct Answer | +1 Marks |
| Incorrect Answer | -0.25 Marks |
CLAT Logical Reasoning Questions
We have curated the top Logical Reasoning questions in CLAT directly from past year papers. Each passage is followed by related questions, providing you with a realistic glimpse into the CLAT exam pattern and the type of logical challenges you can expect to encounter.
Passage 1:
Q1. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
- A) It is a major cause for concern if an economy’s currency is depreciating.
- B) Currency depreciation is not a reason for worry in itself, but if macroeconomic factors are not good, there may be a cause for concern.
- C) The fact that the Indian rupee is witnessing a decline in value against major currencies is very worrisome.
- D) A central bank must always do everything in its power to stem the slightest depreciation of an economy’s currency.
Q2. Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would reduce the decline in value of the rupee?
- A) Appointing a new Governor for the RBI who has a better sense of how to control inflationary trends.
- B) A steep increase in commodity prices and the continued disruption of supply chains.
- C) A reduction in worldwide inflationary trends and the reduction of interest rates in developed country markets.
- D) The RBI buying as many dollars as possible from the market.
Q3. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
- A) The Indian economy has been affected by global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets.
- B) Since developed country markets have increased their interest rates, global investors have pulled their investments out of other economies, and routed them to such developed country markets.
- C) As the demand for US dollars increases, it is likely the rupee-price of a dollar would increase substantially.
- D) The Indian economy and currency are highly protected and have been insulated from the effects of global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets.
Q4. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments for why Indian exports may not be able to take advantage of a falling rupee?
- A) Economies across the world are witnessing a slowdown, and in such economies, demand for imports decreases substantially.
- B) Economies across the world are booming, and there is an increasing demand for Indian exports.
- C) A reduction in the volume of exports would be more than offset by the increased value of dollars that Indian exporters would earn.
- D) Countries across the world have managed to find ways to insulate themselves from the effects of the Russia-Ukraine war and will need a lot of Indian imports to sustain their new growth models.
Q5. Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?
- A) The continuing depreciation of the Indian rupee at its current rate, coupled with worldwide inflationary trends, would result in immense political instability in India, and consequently, in all of South Asia.
- B) If nothing else is done, the rise of interest rates in developed country markets, coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world, will result in a fall in the value of the rupee against the dollar.
- C) If inflationary trends continue to harden across the world, and if interest rates in developed country markets continue to rise, portfolio investors will increase their investments in India, and this will have a positive impact on India’s foreign exchange reserves.
- D) If nothing else is done, the rise of interest rates in developed country markets, coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world, will result in a rise in the value of the rupee against the dollar.
Q6. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
- A) The RBI must not focus solely on preventing the depreciation of the rupee, as that may result in negative impacts on other aspects of the economy.
- B) The RBI must focus solely on preventing the depreciation of the rupee at all costs, since it is by far the most important indicator of the health of the Indian economy.
- C) Periodic inflationary trends are normal in any economy, and the RBI need not worry about the inflationary effects in the Indian economy caused by the depreciation of the rupee.
- D) The RBI need not do anything to reduce the rate of depreciation of the rupee, since the depreciation of an economy’s currency is not a matter of concern in itself.
Passage 2:
Q7. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
- A) The Covid-19 pandemic was an unmitigated disaster for the newspaper industry.
- B) The Covid-19 pandemic had negative as well as positive effects on the newspaper industry.
- C) The Covid-19 pandemic only had good effects on the newspaper industry.
- D) The Covid-19 pandemic had no effect at all on the newspaper industry.
Q8. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
- A) Social media is a reliable source of true and accurate news and information.
- B) Social media is a highly unreliable source of news and information and should not be trusted.
- C) Social media is a good way for people to stay connected with each other.
- D) Social media is a speedier source of information than newspapers.
Q9. Which of the following would be an effective way of making print media more competitive?
- A) Slowing down the process of print media production.
- B) Using more expensive printing methods that achieve better print quality, even if it results in newspapers becoming more expensive.
- C) Only publishing newspapers on alternate days.
- D) Developing ways of ensuring that print media can reach readers more speedily.
Q10. Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would have resulted in the weakening, rather than deepening of public trust in newspapers since the pandemic?
- A) Newspapers were very careful in ensuring they reported accurate and true news during the lockdowns.
- B) Newspapers played a leading role in exposing lies and misinformation spread during the lockdown.
- C) Newspapers actively disseminated misinformation during the lockdowns and made no efforts to expose lies spread by others.
- D) Newspapers alerted the public to the fact that a number of sources were spreading crude forms of misinformation during the pandemic.
Q11. What would be the impact on the readership and revenues of the print media if the image were not dominant over text as a cultural phenomenon?
- A) Print media would not suffer as much of a reduction in readership and revenue as readers shifted to other formats.
- B) Print media would suffer a greater reduction in readership and revenue as readers shifted to other formats.
- C) There would be no impact on the readership and revenues of the print industry.
- D) There would be an increased demand from readers that newspapers carry more images and less text.
Q12. How does the author suggest newspapers can overcome the problem of being outpaced by speedier sources of information?
- A) They offer direct means by which newspapers can become faster to publish and deliver to readers.
- B) They encourage a complete and immediate shift to digital media as a way of ensuring newspapers are not outpaced by other sources of information.
- C) They offer ways to reduce production costs, which would offset the losses caused by readers shifting allegiance to faster sources of information.
- D) They offer alternative means for newspapers to become competitive and profitable, but do not solve the problem of how newspapers can become faster sources of information.
Passage 3:
Q13. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
- A) People in the US are not worried at all about climate change.
- B) People in the US are worried about climate change, and these concerns affect their energy consumption habits more than anything else.
- C) Climate change has resulted in the increase of energy prices across the world, and as a result, governments have had to invest in finding newer sources of renewable energy.
- D) Changes in the energy consumption habits of people in the US are affected more by energy prices than concerns of climate change.
Q14. Which of the following is most similar to the author’s statements about developed countries’ renewed interest in fossil fuels?
- A) Developed countries should not, under any circumstances, invest any resources in fossil fuel energy extraction, and must immediately put a halt to all fossil fuel consumption.
- B) Things could improve if developed countries recognise the difficulty of moving away from reliance on such sources of energy and make a conscious effort to move to alternate or renewable energy sources quickly.
- C) Since investments in energy extraction of any kind are very expensive, developed countries must ensure that they make permanent and continuing investments in fossil fuels.
- D) Developing countries must not, under any circumstances, consume fossil fuels, and leave whatever carbon budget space is remaining to richer countries to use.
Q15. If the information in the passage above is correct, which of the following must necessarily be true?
- A) The fossil fuel industry in developing countries will face reduced sales in the short term, with increased sales in the long term.
- B) The cost of making, installing, and using solar panels will reduce substantially in the coming years.
- C) Passing a bill in the US is a huge effort, and it would not have been possible to pass the new climate bill unless the current energy crisis had compelled lawmakers to do so.
- D) The fossil fuel industry in developing countries will see an increase in business, at least in the short term.
Q16. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument about why travel and fuel consumption in the US reduced in summer?
- A) People like to travel regardless of season, and the only thing that would prevent them from travelling at any time of the year would be high costs.
- B) Airlines raised ticket prices as a response to increase in fuel prices, and therefore, fewer people were able to buy air tickets to travel.
- C) Strict lockdowns were imposed in the US in summer, because of which people travelled less; further, temperatures were moderate, and this meant people had to use less fuel to heat or warm their homes.
- D) Widespread geopolitical tensions in the first half of the year meant that fuel prices were at an all-time high in summer; but prices have now eased off somewhat, making fuel slightly more affordable in the US.
Q17. Which of the following, if true, would resolve the ‘conundrum’ the author says developed countries face now?
- A) The development of adequate renewable power sources in the near term that would lead to a reduction in consumption of fossil fuels.
- B) Finding new sources of fossil fuels that will ensure there is no shortage of energy to heat homes in the winter.
- C) Switching immediately to renewable power sources, even if it leads to a shortage in energy supply for people.
- D) Providing adequate aid to poorer countries so that they can develop renewable power sources for their use.
Q18. Assuming the aim of the US climate bill is to reduce fossil fuel consumption, which of the following would be the strongest argument that it will fail to achieve such an aim?
- A) The bill promotes investments in renewable energy but does not provide for enough increase in investments in developing more sources of fossil fuel-powered energy.
- B) The bill is written in technical language, which ordinary people cannot easily understand.
- C) The bill is self-defeating, since it makes investments in renewable energy conditional to more expenditure on oil and gas and making millions of hectares of federal land available for drilling, which would lead to an increased consumption of fossil fuels.
- D) The bill does not provide any means of increasing carbon budgets, thereby making more room for fossil fuel consumption.
Passage 4:
Q19. Which of the following is most likely to be true if the author’s statements about gendered networks in the workplace are true?
- A) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities easier to come by.
- B) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities easier to come by.
- C) Mid-career women do not find it as easy to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore find career progression or new opportunities harder to come by.
- D) Mid-career women find it easier to get access to senior leaders, who are usually male, as their male colleagues. They therefore do not find career progression or new opportunities harder to come by.
Q20. Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of what the author describes as the “motherhood penalty”?
- A) People are more hesitant to hire men from their mid 30s to their late 40s but may be more willing to hire women of a similar age.
- B) People are more hesitant to hire women from their mid 30s to their late 40s but may be more willing to hire men of a similar age.
- C) Women from their mid 30s to their late 40s always prioritise parenting responsibilities and so are not really interested in pursuing a career.
- D) Women who have children are less committed to their careers than men.
Q21. If professors’ evaluations are the most important criteria in awarding promotions, then which of the following would be the most likely outcome, based on the information provided in the passage?
- A) Male professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their career, while women professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in the mid-career stage.
- B) Since there is a wide disparity between the evaluations that male and female professors receive, the practice of relying upon such evaluations will quickly be abandoned.
- C) Male and female professors will receive promotions at a similar rate throughout the course of their career.
- D) Women professors are likely to be promoted at an even rate throughout their career, while male professors would experience a lower likelihood of promotion in the mid-career stage.
Q22. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
- A) Women going through menopause often quit the workforce voluntarily.
- B) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived negatively at the workplace and to have difficulty achieving professional success.
- C) Women going through menopause should be permitted to take a mid-career sabbatical.
- D) Women going through menopause are more likely to be perceived positively at the workplace and to achieve professional success.
Q23. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the main argument in the passage?
- A) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that women in the workplace are perceived positively and are favourably treated as they age.
- B) Several independent studies conducted in different countries have shown that women in the workplace are perceived negatively and are unfairly treated as they age.
- C) The studies mentioned in the passage have been discredited after they were published, and no reliance should be placed on them.
- D) The studies mentioned in the passage were conducted on very small sample sets and cannot be used to make general statements about the difference in perception between men and women.
Q24. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken Laura Kray’s arguments?
- A) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being likeable and caring.
- B) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are treated better by their colleagues and students.
- C) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded as being slow, inefficient, and outdated in their field.
- D) Women professors perceived as being ‘grandmotherly’ are regarded very highly and receive much more respect than younger women professors.
Passage 5:
Q25. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
- A) Behavioural traits that helped us in the days when we were hunter-gatherers continue to be present in modern-day humans.
- B) Behavioural traits that helped us in the days when we were hunter-gatherers are no longer found in modern-day humans.
- C) The negativity bias makes us more likely to be affected by depressing or sad news.
- D) We have certain behavioural characteristics that affect how we perceive and are affected by sad news.
Q26. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
- A) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to exciting news and information, which may be just like the things we usually experience in our lives.
- B) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to exciting news and information, which may be very unlike the kinds of things we usually encounter in our lives.
- C) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to boring news and information, which may be very unlike the kinds of things we usually encounter in our lives.
- D) Contemporary media continuously exposes us to boring news and information, which may be just like the things we usually experience in our lives.
Q27. Based only on the author’s statement that “we’d prefer having nice neighbours with boring lives”, and the author’s argument about the nature of news that modern media exposes us to, which of the following would the author be most likely to agree with?
- A) Constantly being exposed to negative news gives us a warped perspective of the world.
- B) In our hunting and gathering days, it was better for us to be unnecessarily scared rather than being scared too little.
- C) The news modern media exposes us to is just like our day-to-day experiences.
- D) The news modern media exposes us to is very different from our day-to-day experiences.
Q 28. The author’s statements about negativity bias, if true, provide most support for which of the following conclusions?
- A) We are more likely to notice a story about a billionaire donating their money to charity than a story about an airplane crash.
- B) We are more likely to be attracted to a news article about a rise in life expectancy in our country than a news article about a murder in our city.
- C) We are more likely to notice a story about increasing pollution levels than a story about improving educational levels in schools.
- D) We are more likely to form our opinion of the world based on the information available to us rather than information we do not have access to.
Q29. Which of the following would be the most effective way of countering the effects of what the author describes as our ‘availability bias’?
- A) Ensuring that we do not seek out news sources and stories that we may not otherwise have been exposed to.
- B) Following only one news source and limiting our perspective of the world to that one source.
- C) Avoiding all positive news stories, and instead only reading news stories about disasters and tragedies.
- D) Ensuring that we seek out news sources and stories that we may not otherwise have been exposed to.
Q30. The author says that “The fact that we’re bombarded daily with horrific stories about aircraft disasters, child snatchers and beheadings — which tend to lodge in the memory — completely skews our view of the world.” The conclusion the author draws in this argument follows logically if which of the following is assumed?
- A) Our ideas about the world are shaped by the information we are exposed to.
- B) Modern media is concerned only with making massive profits.
- C) Modern journalists generate news stories much faster than in the old days.
- D) Humans once lived as hunter-gatherers.
Passage 6:
Q31. What according to you is the objective of the study of the present paragraph?
- A) To map the various stages of pressure points of adulthood in the process of education.
- B) To narrate the anti-family agenda in the current education system.
- C) To pinpoint the obstacles targeted against meritorious students.
- D) All of the above
Q32. Which factors as per the author cause more stress amongst college students?
- A) Pressure from parents and society towards greater educational needs and increased competitive academic work.
- B) Failure to develop successful romantic interests, financial constraints and interpersonal issues with room-mates.
- C) Failure to adapt to the transition to college life and to adjust various life domains in tune with needs and requirements of college life.
- D) Inability to manage time constraints and the uncertainty pertaining to their future.
Q33. Which of the following fall closest to the underlying assumption in the present study?
- A) Problem-solving ability amongst college students is negatively associated with symptoms of depression and anxiety.
- B) Students lean towards unhealthy coping skills in order to try to lower the stress that they experience.
- C) Romantic interest is an anti-dote for stress amongst the students in the colleges.
- D) Stress is subjective for each student.
Q34. Suggest a suitable title for the paragraph from amongst the given titles:
- A) Triumph and Turbulence of College Education System
- B) Negative impact of College Education System
- C) Negligence of Stress Management by parents
- D) Unemployment and Mental Instability
Q35. With reference to the above paragraph, which of the following offers the most plausible solutions as a coping up mechanism for college students?
- A) Individual students should approach counsellors for coping up with stress.
- B) Keeping in view that large number of students are experiencing stress, colleges must take steps reduce course curriculum and peer pressures.
- C) College authorities shall provide access to counseling and every student experiencing stress must engage in some form of coping mechanism to alleviate stress.
- D) The students must learn to differentiate between short term and long-term stress.
Passage 7:
Q36. The objective behind the information furnished in the passage is:
- A) To examine the experiences faced by the teachers because of the sudden transition from offline to online mode of teaching due to outbreak of COVID-19.
- B) To identify the differences between the online and offline mode of teaching.
- C) To reveal the side-effects of COVID-19.
- D) To understand the need to be able to cope up with crisis like situations even in the educational sector.
Q37. Based on the ideas presented in the paragraph, it will not be possible to draw out useful recommendations for situations like the pandemic, unless:
- A) The factors required to contribute to quality education by online and offline modes are examined.
- B) Knowledge about the infrastructural availability in the schools or universities is crucial.
- C) The faculty is given adequate training and experience in providing online education is taken into consideration.
- D) A detailed analysis of the comparative performance in the online and offline modes is done.
Q38. What can be most conveniently inferred from the given paragraph?
- A) Whether online or face-to-face, university teaching activity is a genuinely complex task that involves multiple elements of interlinked activity systems.
- B) It has been more challenging for both individual academics and institutions to quickly adopt to online teaching during the COVID-19 Pandemic.
- C) The object of the online teaching activity systems created a fundamental contradiction with the object of the previous teaching activity systems.
- D) All the above.
Q39. What suitable policy decision should be devised by the administrators of the schools and the universities, in the light of the facts presented in the paragraph?
- A) There must be an insight into the complexity of online teaching and need to work for the capacity building of the teachers during such extra ordinary times and there is a greater need to create a teacher community and foster collaborative teaching relationships among the members, even if it takes time.
- B) The faculty members must be oriented towards the lasting changes brought about to their roles and identities in teaching.
- C) It is time to develop a comprehensive understanding of the challenges experienced by individual academics and the changes created by those academics.
- D) There is a need to develop infrastructure in schools and universities.
Q40. Which of the following points most closely supports the fact that the present education system lacks the structure to sustain effective teaching during and after the periods of lockdowns?
- A) There are inadequate applications and platforms for effective online teaching.
- B) Shift from offline to online was faced with resistance.
- C) The academia’s long-established roles and identities have been completely altered by the pandemic.
- D) The students are interested in online examinations and schools and universities are finding it difficult to shift to offline examination mode.
Passage 8:
Q41. As per the passage, which of the following is a challenge for implementation of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF)?
- A) Unfulfillment of the pre-2020 global biodiversity targets
- B) Clarity of action plan for the society and government
- C) Threat of mass extinction
- D) Failure of plan to save ecosystems
Q42. According to the passage, why do some researchers advocate that one biodiversity target be prioritized?
- A) Systemic policy change is difficult to implement
- B) Post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) is comprehensive
- C) The 2°C climate target needs to be prioritized
- D) Biodiversity needs to be valued, conserved, restored and wisely used
Q43. Which of the following is correct expression of the author’s opinion as stated in passage?
- A) Implementation of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) allows no middle ground for success or failure.
- B) It is high time that countries re-evaluate the progress in achieving biodiversity targets.
- C) Biodiversity conservation should be prioritized over climate change at the global level.
- D) The post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) is the best way to prevent mass extinction.
Q44. Which of the following is the central theme of the above passage?
- A) The reason for failure of biodiversity conservation efforts at global level
- B) The inter-relationship between biodiversity conservation and climate change
- C) The future of biodiversity conservation efforts at global level
- D) The role of United Nations in biodiversity conservation at global level
Q45. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
- A) The holistic nature of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) is a boon.
- B) The holistic nature of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) is a bane.
- C) The holistic nature of the post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) can be a boon or a bane.
- D) The post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) includes the 2°C climate target.
Passage 9:
Q46. “Minimising the prosecution of consensual romances would also leave a logjammed system with more space to pursue actual sexual assault cases”. In the context of the statement, which of the following strengthens the author’s opinion?
- A) There are many unreported sexual assault cases.
- B) Speedy prosecution of sexual assault cases is desirable.
- C) Consensual romance, in some cases, can amount to sexual assault.
- D) Sexual assault and rape are different.
Q47. What has the author conveyed regarding the prosecution of statutory rape in India?
- A) Statutory rape does not violate the romantic and sexual autonomy of young adults.
- B) Statutory rape must be met with stricter punishment.
- C) Statutory rape must be abolished.
- D) Statutory rape is a relic of Victorian morality.
Q48. As per the above passage, which of the following does not correctly represent the author’s view regarding the widespread persecution of teenage lovers under the POCSO Act?
- A) Teenagers have the right to love as much as adults.
- B) Police complaints of teenage lovers may lead to their harassment.
- C) Consent of minor girls do not have legal validity.
- D) Consent of minor girls have legal validity.
Q49. In the above passage, which of the following has concerned the “conscience” of the Allahabad High Court?
- A) Carelessness of teenage lovers.
- B) Threat to the safety of teenage lovers.
- C) Impact on mental health of teenage lovers.
- D) Harassment of teenage lovers by their families.
Q50. As per the above passage, which of the following is a major challenge in implementation of the POCSO Act?
- A) Speedy prosecution of cases.
- B) Respecting the rights of adolescents and young adults.
- C) Counselling of adolescents and young adults.
- D) Imposition of stringent punishment.
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CLAT Logical Reasoning: Overview
The CLAT logical reasoning section is designed to test your critical thinking skills, which are fundamental to practicing law.
It assesses how well you can:
- Interpret and draw conclusions from arguments.
- Identify strengths and weaknesses in a series of statements.
- Apply logic to complex scenarios typical of legal reasoning.
- Understand the structure of relationships and deduce new information from them.
| Aspects | Details |
| Type Of Questions | Objective-type (MCQs) |
| No. of Questions | 22-26 |
| Total Marks | 22-26 |
| Weightage | Around 20% |
| Correct Answer | +1 Marks |
| Incorrect Answer | -0.25 Marks |

